midterm 2

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Anemia may be caused by impaired RBC production
Anemia may be caused by increased RBC destruction
Anemia may be caused by blood loss
All of the following are normal adaptations to anemia Rate and depth of breathing increase.
All of the following are normal adaptations to anemia Cardiac output increases
All of the following are normal adaptations to anemia In severe or rapid-onset anemia, peripheral blood vessels constrict, directing blood to vital organs.
All of the following are normal adaptations to anemia In less severe, more gradually developing anemia, blood vessels dilate in response to hypoxia.
When compensatory mechanisms fail, symptoms of anemia shortness of breath
When compensatory mechanisms fail, symptoms of anemia dizziness
When compensatory mechanisms fail, symptoms of anemia fatigue even at rest
Which statement regarding anemia is true In anisocytosis, erythrocytes vary in size.
Which statement regarding anemia is true In megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia, erythrocytes are large, but contain normal amounts of hemoglobin.
Which statement regarding anemia is true In sideroblastic anemia, iron is high in tissues and hemoglobinsynthesis is defective.
Which is true regarding pernicious anemia? The cause is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which permitsabsorption of Vitamin B12.
Which is true regarding pernicious anemia? Pernicious anemia is associated with neurologic complicationsresulting from Vitamin B12 deficiency.
Which is true regarding pernicious anemia? It is the most common type of megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia.
Which is true regarding pernicious anemia? If untreated, victims usually die of heart failure.
Which statement is true regarding anemia? Worldwide, the most common type of anemia is iron deficiency.
Which statement is true regarding anemia? Aplastic anemia is due to lack or suppression of hematopoietic cells in bone marrow.
Which statement is true regarding anemia? Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are genetic in cause.
The term anemia of chronic disease (ACD) refers to mild to moderate anemia associated with a variety of chronic conditions. Chronic diseases commonly associated with ACD include all of the following rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, hepatitis, inflammatory bowel conditions
The term anemia of chronic disease (ACD) refers to mild to moderate anemia associated with a variety of chronic conditions. Chronic diseases commonly associated with ACD include all of the following cancer
The term anemia of chronic disease (ACD) refers to mild to moderate anemia associated with a variety of chronic conditions. Chronic diseases commonly associated with ACD include all of the following AIDS
The term anemia of chronic disease (ACD) refers to mild to moderate anemia associated with a variety of chronic conditions. Chronic diseases commonly associated with ACD include all of the following chronic renal failure
Polycythemia vera involves: increase in leukocytes
Polycythemia vera involves: increase in erythrocytes
Polycythemia vera involves: increase in platelets
Signs and symptoms of polycythemia vera include all of the following changes in mood, cognition, vision
Signs and symptoms of polycythemia vera include all of the following extreme itching
Signs and symptoms of polycythemia vera include all of the following hyperactivity
Which is a complication of absolute polycythemia vera? cerebral thrombosis
Which is a complication of absolute polycythemia vera? development of thrombi and occlusion in major and minor bloodvesselsd.
Which is a complication of absolute polycythemia vera? portal hypertension
Absolute secondary polycythemia is caused by: increased secretion of erythropoietin in response to hypoxia
The cause of absolute primary polycythemia is unknown in most cases, but genetic in some
Which is classified as a quantitative alteration of leukocyte function? premature destruction of circulating white cells
The condition in which the leukocyte count is lower than normal is: leukopenia
Which is True regarding quantitative alterations in leukocytes? Leukopenia is never normal or beneficial.
Which is True regarding quantitative alterations in leukocytes? Leukocytosis is a normal, beneficial response to a variety of stressors.
Which is True regarding quantitative alterations in leukocytes? Leukocytosis may result from pathologies (e.g. cancer andhematologic disorders).
Which of the following is the Most common clinical manifestation of infectious mononucleosis? swelling of lymphoid tissues (lymphadenopathy), especially of cervical lymph nodes
Which of the following is the Most common clinical manifestation of infectious mononucleosis? fever
Which of the following is the Most common clinical manifestation of infectious mononucleosis? sore throat (pharyngitis)
Which is True regarding infectious mononucleosis? has peak incidence in young adults.
Which is True regarding infectious mononucleosis? primarily affects B-lymphocytes.
Which is True regarding infectious mononucleosis? is usually caused by the Epstein Barr virus.
Which is True regarding infectious mononucleosis? Is proliferative but not malignant
Which is a clinical manifestation of leukemia? anorexia and weight loss
Which is a clinical manifestation of leukemia? enlargement of spleen, liver, and lymph nodes
Which is a clinical manifestation of leukemia? infection and resulting fever
Which is a clinical manifestation of leukemia? thrombocytopenia and resulting bleeding
Which is a clinical manifestation of leukemia? anemia and resulting fatigue
Which is a clinical manifestation of leukemia? bone pain
This statement is true Acute leukemias usually involve undifferentiated or immature (usually blast) cells..
This statement is true CMLs involve multipotent myeloid stem cells, whereas CLLs involve B cells (or sometimes T cells).
This statement is true Chronic leukemias can become acute
Which statement regarding proliferative disorders of leukocytes is True? Leukemia, multiple myeloma, Hodgkin Disease, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma are all malignancies.
Which statement regarding proliferative disorders of leukocytes is True? Both multiple myeloma and lymphoma involve solid tumors.
Which statement regarding proliferative disorders of leukocytes is True? In leukemia, there are excess leukocytes in the blood, and theseleukocytes are dysfunctional.
Thrombocytopenia is described as: decreased platelet count
Thrombocytopenia can: increase bleeding time
Which term describes a pathological excess of platelets? thrombocythemia
Vitamin ______ is required for synthesis of normal clotting substances by the ___________. K, liver
Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis and regulation of all of the following prothrombin
Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis and regulation of all of the following prothrombin factors
Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis and regulation of all of the following anticoagulant factors
Clinical manifestations of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation result from: increased fibrin formation and increased fibrinolysis
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation can cause: hemorrhage, thrombosis, and jaundice
After a deep massage to her legs, a 60 year old woman develops shortness ofbreath and weakness. What is the likely mechanism? release of a deep vein thrombus which then travels to the pulmonary arteries
Which is the term for the crude, waking state which can be maintained by the reticular activating system when cerebral function has been lost? Vegetative state
which type of phenomenon is Most likely to produce an altered level of arousal? metabolic
Which type of phenomenon is Most likely to produce an altered level of arousal? structural
Which type of phenomenon is Most likely to produce an altered level of arousal? psychogenic
The way of producing a coma include impairment of both hemispheres by hypoxia, hypoglycemia, drugs, or toxins
The way of producing a coma include brainstem abnormality that impairs the reticular activating system (RAS)
Assessment of respiration in assessing the level of consciousness can give indications regarding: site of brain dysfunction
Which is True regarding Doll’s eyes phenomenon? If the person’s head is moved from side to side or up and down, the eyes will move in conjugate gaze to the opposite side.
Which is True regarding Doll’s eyes phenomenon? It is unrelated to pupillary reflexes.
Which is True regarding Doll’s eyes phenomenon? If it is present in a comatose person, brain stem function at the level of the pons is considered intact.
Death of the cerebral hemispheres is cerebral death
Which is TRUE regarding locked-in syndrome? Cognitive function is intact.
Which is TRUE regarding locked-in syndrome? Due to loss of motor function, person is unable to communicate except through blinking and vertical eye movements.
Which is TRUE regarding locked-in syndrome? Person is fully conscious.
Etiologic factors in seizures generally include all of the following: metabolic defects
Etiologic factors in seizures generally include all of the following: cerebral lesions or trauma
Etiologic factors in seizures generally include all of the following: biochemical disorders
Which is TRUE regarding terminology for seizure? The new name for petit mal is absences.
Which is TRUE regarding terminology for seizure? The new name for grand mal is tonic-clonic.
Which is TRUE regarding terminology for seizure? Complex seizures include impairment of consciousness, whereas simple seizures do not.
Which of the following is a possible cause of an acute confusional state? action of toxin or chemical agents on neuronal cells
Diminishing cognition, decreasing ability to pay attention, language problems, and difficulty with short- or long-term memory may be seen with: dementia
Which of the following will cause increased intracranial pressure? edema
Which of the following will cause increased intracranial pressure? intracranial hemorrhage
Which of the following will cause increased intracranial pressure? tumor
Which of the following will cause increased intracranial pressure? excess cerebrospinal fluid
Cerebral edema resulting from disruption of the blood-brain barrier, increasing capillary permeability, is: vasogenic edema
Cerebral edema is best defined as an increase in the fluid content of intracellular or interstitial compartments of brain tissue (white or gray matter)
Damage to tracts from the lobe to the limbic system may result in alterations in emotional control. frontal
Which is a typical clinical manifestation of pyramidal tract syndrome? spinal shock (temporary) if the damage to the pyramidal tract occurs below the pons
Which is a typical clinical manifestation of pyramidal tract syndrome? loss of voluntary movement
Which is a typical clinical manifestation of pyramidal tract syndrome? spasticity (after spinal shock disappears)
____________ refers to increased tone in extensor muscles and trunk muscles secondary to injury of the diencephalon, midbrain, or pons. (Usually such injuries are accompanied by cerebral damage). decerebrate posture (decerebrate rigidity)
Contrecoup injuries are much more likely to occur when objects strike the back of the head than when they strike the front. true
Cerebral edema, brain swelling, hemorrhage, increased intracranial pressure, and infection resulting from trauma to the brain are considered ________ injury. secondary
Cortical contusions and epidural, subdural, and intracerebral hematomas are focal brain injuries. true
Which is TRUE regarding diffuse brain injuries? The common pathophysiologic mechanism in diffuse brain Injury is disruption of axons.
Which is TRUE regarding diffuse brain injuries? All concussions involve diffuse brain injury.
Which is TRUE regarding diffuse brain injuries? Some of the effects of a concussion may persist for months.
Which is TRUE regarding diffuse brain injuries? All forms of diffuse axonal injury (DAI) involve coma.
Spinal shock, characterized by a complete loss of somatic and autonomic reflexes below the level of the lesion, can last from a few days to months. T or F true
Which is True regarding autonomic dysreflexia? Normal sensory stimulation of areas innervated below the cord lesion activates hyperactive sympathetic reflexes.
Which is True regarding autonomic dysreflexia? Heart rate decreases because parasympathetic innervation to heart (cranial nerve X, the vagus) is intact.
Which is True regarding autonomic dysreflexia? Brain produces signals to dampen sympathetic stimulation and raise parasympathetic stimulation, but they can’t get through the lesion.
Which is True regarding autonomic dysreflexia? Sympathetic discharges produce massive vasoconstriction, resulting in dangerously high blood pressure.
Which of the following are types of cerebrovascular disease? alteration in permeability of vessel
Which of the following are types of cerebrovascular disease? rupture of vessel
Which of the following are types of cerebrovascular disease? occlusion of vessel
Which of the following are types of cerebrovascular disease? lesions of vessel wall
Brain abnormalities induced by cerebrovascular diseases include: hemorrhage
Stroke is more common in: smokers
Stroke is more common in: blacks
Stroke is more common in: people over 65 years of age
Which is a risk factor for ischemic stroke? diabetes mellitus
Which is a risk factor for ischemic stroke? insulin resistance
Which is a risk factor for ischemic stroke? polycythemia and thrombocythemia
Which is a risk factor for ischemic stroke? elevated lipoprotein-a
Which is a risk factor for ischemic stroke? impaired cardiac function
Which is a risk factor for ischemic stroke? hyperhomocysteinemia
Which is a risk factor for ischemic stroke? nonrheumatic atrial fibrillation
By definition, in a true TIA all the neurologic deficits must have disappeared completely within 24 hours. True
Where do atherosclerotic plaques tend to form in the cerebral circulation? at branches and curves of arteries
Which is a source of emboli in embolic stroke? fat emboli forming after fractures of long bones
Which is a source of emboli in embolic stroke? thrombi formed in carotids, aorta, or vertebral-basilar circulation
Which is a source of emboli in embolic stroke? air emboli
Which is a source of emboli in embolic stroke? thrombi formed in heart under conditions of atrial fibrillation, myocardial infarct, endocarditis, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prostheses
Hemorrhagic stroke (intracranial hemorrhage) may have all of the following symptom patterns headache with consciousness maintained
Hemorrhagic stroke (intracranial hemorrhage) may have all of the following symptom patterns sudden lapse into unconsciousness
Hemorrhagic stroke (intracranial hemorrhage) may have all of the following symptom patterns severe generalized headache with prompt lapse into unresponsive state
Intracranial aneurysms can result from all of the following congenital anomalies of the vessel wall
Intracranial aneurysms can result from all of the following arteriosclerosis
Intracranial aneurysms can result from all of the following infection or inflammation
Intracranial aneurysms can result from all of the following neurosurgery or angiography (iatrogenic causes)
Arteriovenous malformations and Berry aneurysms are similar in that Both are due to congenital abnormalities.
Which is True regarding cluster headaches? are unilateral
Which is True regarding cluster headaches? have a gradual onset
Which is True regarding cluster headaches? occur primarily in men
Which is True regarding cluster headaches? occur in a series, usually at the same time of day
Which headaches are proceeded by an aura? classic migraine
Which is True regarding cluster headaches? are unilateral
Which is True regarding cluster headaches? occur primarily in men
Which is True regarding cluster headaches? occur in a series, usually at the same time of day
Which is a symptom of bacterial meningitis? severe photophobia
Which is a symptom of bacterial meningitis? severe throbbing headache
Which is a symptom of bacterial meningitis? Brudzinski and Kernig signs
Meningitis or infection of the meninges can be checked for in the field with tests which tether or stretch these tissues. These tests are called: nuchal rigidity
Meningitis or infection of the meninges can be checked for in the field with tests which tether or stretch these tissues. These tests are called: Chvostek sign
Meningitis or infection of the meninges can be checked for in the field with tests which tether or stretch these tissues. These tests are called: Yeoman and Ely tests
Meningitis or infection of the meninges can be checked for in the field with tests which tether or stretch these tissues. These tests are called: lumbar puncture
Brain abscesses form: cryptogenically, independently of other infections
Brain abscesses form: from contiguous infection sites (e.g. nasal areas, middle ear)
Brain abscesses form: after open trauma and neurosurgery
Brain abscesses form: through spread in the bloodstream
Following a visit to southern California, a young woman develops a fever, delirium, seizures, cranial nerve palsies and hyper-reflexia. Which of the following is your primary differential diagnosis? viral encephalitis
Which is a characteristic of Parkinson Disease? death of dopaminergic cells of the substantia nigra
Which is a characteristic of Parkinson Disease? resting tremor
Which is a characteristic of Parkinson Disease? cogwheel rigidity
The best description of multiple sclerosis is autoimmune demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system
Which is true regarding amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? is incurable at present
Which is true regarding amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? affects both upper and lower motor neurons
Which is true regarding amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? usually occurs after age 30
Peripheral nervous system disorders include the following neuropathies
Peripheral nervous system disorders include the following radiculopathies
Peripheral nervous system disorders include the following Guillain-Barre syndrome
Which is True regarding Guillain-Barre syndrome? can include paresthesias, pain, and autonomic dysfunction
Which is True regarding Guillain-Barre syndrome? results in symmetric weakness or paralysis
Which is True regarding Guillain-Barre syndrome? Is an autoimmune attack on peripheral myelin
Which is True regarding Guillain-Barre syndrome? Is frequently preceded by a viral infection
Which is True regarding myasthenia gravis? It is a chronic autoimmune disease involving destruction of acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle fibres.
Which is True regarding myasthenia gravis? Treatments may result in cholinergic crisis.
Which is True regarding myasthenia gravis? It causes muscle weakness and fatiguability.
Both spina bifida and spina bifida occulta involve a defect in formation of the vertebral column. T or F True
An underlying condition of spina bifida is suggested by a subcutaneous mass
An underlying condition of spina bifida is suggested by a cutaneous angioma
An underlying condition of spina bifida is suggested by a midline dimple posterior to the vertebral column
An underlying condition of spina bifida is suggested by abnormal growth of hair along the spine
Which is true of congenital hydrocephalus? There is an increased volume of CSF.
Which is true of congenital hydrocephalus? It is caused by a blockage of flow in the ventricular system, an imbalance in production of CSF, or a reduced reabsorption of CSF.
Which is true of congenital hydrocephalus? Brain tissue is compressed against the skull.
Children with cerebral palsy have motor dysfunction, but only rarely have other neurological disorders. False
Cerebral palsy by definition is nonprogressive, but its clinical manifestations change with maturation and growth of the child. True
Which is the most common hearing loss in old age? presbycusis
Which of the following does cause a sensorineural loss of hearing? exposure to noise
Which of the following does cause a sensorineural loss of hearing? meniere’s disease
Which of the following does cause a sensorineural loss of hearing? drugs
Which of the following does cause a sensorineural loss of hearing? systemic disease
Due to increasing firmness and loss of elasticity of the lens, presbyopia becomescommon in the sixth decade. true
A _____________ is an infection of the sebaceous glands of the eyelids. hordeolum (stye)
Viral conjunctivitis is caused by _____________ . adenovirus
Which type of sensory function is a special sense? auditory
Which type of sensory function is a special sense? olfactory
Which type of sensory function is a special sense? gustatory
Arousals in which a child expresses intense fear or other emotion are: night terrors
A person suffering coronary artery disease may be at risk during _________sleep. REM sleep
____________ is known as paradoxical sleep and most resembles beingawake. REM sleep
Delta wave sleep is deeper than alpha wave sleep. true
In acute hypothermia, _________ results in a net movement of blood awayfrom the skin to the body core, decreasing rate of heat loss. peripheral vasoconstriction
Children are more susceptible to heat stroke than adults due to all of thefollowing: they produce more metabolic heat when exercising
Children are more susceptible to heat stroke than adults due to all of thefollowing: their ratio of surface area to mass is greater than an adult’s
Children are more susceptible to heat stroke than adults due to all of thefollowing: their sweating capacity is less than an adult’s
Heat cramps are a result of prolonged sweating causing loss of sodium. true
Which is a beneficial effect of fever? helps mobilize phagocytes
Which is a beneficial effect of fever? speeds breakdown of lysosomes, thereby enhancing autolysis andin turn preventing viral replication
Which is a beneficial effect of fever? kills or inhibits growth and replication of some microbes
Which is a beneficial effect of fever? decreases serum iron, zinc, and copper, thus hindering bacterialgrowth
In which population are febrile seizures most likely to occur? male children under 5 years
Fever is an example of failure of thermoregulation. False
All of the following are physiological processes used to lose heat: d. perspiration
All of the following are physiological processes used to lose heat: increased ventilation
All of the following are physiological processes used to lose heat: central vasodilation
All of the following are possible mechanisms of heat loss: radiation
All of the following are possible mechanisms of heat loss: conduction
All of the following are possible mechanisms of heat loss: convection
All of the following are possible mechanisms of heat loss: evaporation
As much as _____ litres per hour may be lost by sweating. 4.0
One way the hypothalamus can raise body temperature is by relayinginformation to the ___________ to provoke voluntary heat-producingresponses. cerebral cortex
In order for a person to feel pain in an area, the area must be damaged. false
Which is TRUE regarding chronic pain syndromes? Neuralgias involve damage to a peripheral nerve.
Which is TRUE regarding chronic pain syndromes? Causalgia and reflex sympathetic dystrophies are types ofneuralgias.
Which is TRUE regarding chronic pain syndromes? In fibromyalgia, MPTPS, and phantom limb pain, the person feelspain in an area in which the tissue is not damaged.
Genetic factors appear to play a large role in panic disorder
Genetic factors appear to play a large role in mood disorder
Genetic factors appear to play a large role in schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is considered a thought disorder. True
Symptoms of schizophrenia which are termed negative symptoms include all of the following affective flattening, the almost complete lack of emotional or facial expression
Symptoms of schizophrenia which are termed negative symptoms include all of the following deficit in spontaneous or goal-directed activities
Symptoms of schizophrenia which are termed negative symptoms include all of the following absence of spontaneous speech
Symptoms of schizophrenia which are termed negative symptoms include all of the following inability to have emotional experience
Abnormalities in hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal function exist in a large percentage of people with major depression
ADHD is a behavioural disorder
Attention-deficit disorders always involve hyperactivity. false
Which is a characteristic of ADHD? distractibility
Which is a characteristic of ADHD? hyperactivity
Which is a characteristic of ADHD? impulsivity
Post-traumatic stress disorder is another term for acute stress disorder. False
Acute stress disorder lasts for a minimum of ____ and a maximum of _____ . 2 days, 4 weeks
For a diagnosis of acute stress disorder, all of the following must be true The initial traumatic event must have involved actual or threatened physical bodily harm or death to someone.
For a diagnosis of acute stress disorder, all of the following must be true The person must have been afraid or horrified or felt helpless
For a diagnosis of acute stress disorder, all of the following must be true During the post-stress period being evaluated, the person must have thoughts, dreams, or flashbacks of the event and avoid stimuli which remind him of the event.
For a diagnosis of acute stress disorder, all of the following must be true During or immediately after the event the person must have undergone dissociative symptoms such as numbing, detachment, depersonalization, or amnesia.
If suicidal ideation is present, the imminent risk increases with each of the following risk factors: prior suicide attempt
If suicidal ideation is present, the imminent risk increases with each of the following risk factors: level of intent and formulation of plan
If suicidal ideation is present, the imminent risk increases with each of the following risk factors: greater preoccupation (e.g., frequency, intensity, and duration of thoughts)
If suicidal ideation is present, the imminent risk increases with each of the following risk factors: availability of lethal means for suicide (e.g., firearms or pills)
If suicidal ideation is present, the imminent risk increases with each of the following risk factors: presence of active mental illness (e.g., severe depression or psychosis
If suicidal ideation is present, the imminent risk increases with each of the following risk factors: presence of substance abuse
If suicidal ideation is present, the imminent risk increases with each of the following risk factors: family history of completed suicide
Homicidal ideation becomes a higher risk factor for harm to others in the presence of all of the following factors severely agitated, aggressive, threatening or hostile behaviour
Homicidal ideation becomes a higher risk factor for harm to others in the presence of all of the following factors presence of active psychosis
Homicidal ideation becomes a higher risk factor for harm to others in the presence of all of the following factors past history of violent behaviors
Which is True regarding autism? Autism is a complex developmental disability that typically appears during the first three years of life.
Which is True regarding autism? It affects the normal development of the brain in the areas of social interaction and communication skills.
Which is True regarding autism? It is the result of a neurological disorder that affects the functioning of the brain.
Arteriosclerosis raises the systolic pressure by: decreasing arterial distensibility and lumen diameter
Is the following statement true? Atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis.
Following endothelial injury, the process of atherogenesis begins. The firststep in the process is: Endothelial cells cease making antithrombotic and vasodilatory
The fatty streak, the earliest pathological finding in _________, is acollection of foam cells (macrophages full of oxidized LDL) that does notobstruct the affected vessel. atherosclerosis
Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no knowncause and are therefore diagnosed as ______________ hypertension. primary (“essential”)
Which factor is associated with primary hypertension? cigarette smoking
Which factor is associated with primary hypertension? family history of hypertension
Which factor is associated with primary hypertension? black race
Elevations of systolic pressure alone are most apt to be caused by increased aortic rigidity
Which is true regarding primary and secondary hypertension? Secondary is due to altered hemodynamics associated with anotherdisease
Which of the following is a cause of secondary hypertension? hyperthyroidism
Which of the following is a cause of secondary hypertension? arteriosclerosis
Which of the following is a cause of secondary hypertension? coarctation of the aorta
Malignant hypertension can result in _____________. encephalopathy
Malignant hypertension can result in _____________. CVA
Malignant hypertension can result in _____________. uremia
Which of the following would contribute to syncope, dizziness, orblurred vision upon standing? increased intrathoracic pressure
Which of the following would contribute to syncope, dizziness, orblurred vision upon standing? opening of the valves of the venous system
Which of the following would contribute to syncope, dizziness, orblurred vision upon standing? bradycardia
. Localized dilation or outpouching of a vessel wall or cardiac chamber iscalled: aneurysm
Separation of the tunica intima, tunica media, or adventitia of a vessel wall is false aneurysm
Intravascular activation of the coagulation cascade will result most directly in thrombus formation
Which of the following is a common iatrogenic form of emboli? air embolism
Varicose veins and chronic venous insufficiency (CVI) can develop fromdamage to the one-way valves in the veins of the legs.
Which is a result of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)? marked edema of the feet and ankles
Which is a result of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)? hyperpigmentation of the skin over the feet and ankles
Which is a result of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)? susceptibility to venous stasis ulcers
The three factors (Triad of Virchow) which promote venous thrombosis arevenous stasis, damage to veins, and hypercoagulability. True
Emboli from venous thrombosis result primarily from thrombi that form insuperficial veins. false
Emboli from venous thrombi are dangerous because they can lodge in thearteries serving the lungs. true
Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply enoughto impair myocardial metabolism, which in some people causes the paincalled angina
Which is a risk factor for coronary artery disease? hypertension
Which is a risk factor for coronary artery disease? diabetes mellitus
Which is a risk factor for coronary artery disease? cigarette smoking
Which is a risk factor for coronary artery disease? obesity
Which is a risk factor for coronary artery disease? hyperhomocysteinemia
Which is a risk factor for coronary artery disease? dyslipidemia (excessive VLDLs and LDLs, especiallyapolipoprotein A)
Myocardial cells can withstand up to ____ minutes of ischemia and stillreturn to a viable state. 20 minutes
The result of prolonged, unrelieved, severe ischemia of the myocardium is: myocardial infarction
When scar tissue replaces myocardium after a myocardial infarct, theforming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury _____ days afterthe MI. 10-14
Acute pericarditis may present similarly to an acute myocardial infarction.Objectively, you can differentiate the two by: auscultation of a friction rub
Pericardial effusion occurs only in acute pericarditis. false
Pericardial effusion usually directly impedes filling of the right atrium
Cardiac tamponade occurs in pericardial effusion
Which is typical of constrictive pericarditis? compresses the myocardium.
Which is typical of constrictive pericarditis? limits cardiac output.
Which is typical of constrictive pericarditis? produces symptoms including dyspnea with exertion, fatigue,anorexia, weight loss, distention of jugular vein, edema.
The hallmark of ______________ is a disproportionate thickening of theinterventricular septum. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
_____________ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative diseaseof the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis or glycogenstorage disease. restrictive
Mitral stenosis results directly in the incomplete emptying of the left atrium
Which is the most common cardiac valve disease in North America and ismost prevalent in young women? mitral valve prolapse
Which is a common cause of aortic stenosis? congenital malformation
Which is a common cause of aortic stenosis? inflammatory damage
Which is a common cause of aortic stenosis? calcification
Which of the following is NOT affected by acute rheumatic fever? skin
Which of the following is NOT affected by acute rheumatic fever? nervous system
Which of the following is NOT affected by acute rheumatic fever? various structures of heart
Carditis caused by beta hemolytic streptococcus leaves fibrinoid necroticdeposits which cause mitral or aortic valve dysfunction. These fibrinoiddeposits are called Aschoff bodies
Infective endocarditis is most often caused by: streptococcus
Risk factors for infective endocarditis include which of the following? intravenous drug abuse
Right heart failure due to pulmonary problems is commonly called: congestive heart failure
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonaryresistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from thiscondition? high-output failure
Ventricular septal defects account for about 30% of all congenital defects
Ventricular septal defect can be characterized by an abnormal opening in the interventricular septum
Patent ductus arteriosus must be surgically repaired in the first six months of life
Which of the following is consistent with the cardiac defect of transpositionof the great arteries? The aorta arises from the right ventricle.
Shock can be classified by all of the following cause
Shock can be classified by all of the following clinical manifestation
Shock can be classified by all of the following principal pathophysiologic process
The final common pathway in all shock is . impairment of cellular metabolism
Is the statement true? In all types of shock the cell is either is not receiving adequateoxygen or is unable to use oxygen.
Is the statement true? Impaired glucose use can be caused by either impaired delivery ofglucose or impaired cellular uptake of glucose.
Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is the progressive dysfunctionof two or more organ systems resulting from an uncontrolled inflammatoryresponse to a severe illness or injury. true
Plasma cascades activated in multiple organ dysfunction syndrome(MODS) include fibrinolytic
Plasma cascades activated in multiple organ dysfunction syndrome(MODS) include coagulation
Plasma cascades activated in multiple organ dysfunction syndrome(MODS) include complement

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